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CII Certification
M92 Exam
CII.M92.v2026-09-19.q29 Dumps

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Question 1

Which body exists to ensure that the London Market as a whole maintains and improves its position as a major worldwide insurance market?

A.The Franchise Board.
B.The Prudential Regulation Authority.
C.The International Underwriting Association (IUA).
D.London Market Group.

Correct Answer: D

The London Market Group (LMG) is a body comprising senior leaders from across the London insurance and reinsurance market (including the IUA, Lloyd's, LIIBA, and LMA). Its sole strategic mandate is to promote and enhance the global competitive position of the London Market as the leading destination for specialty and complex insurance risks. It focuses on market-wide modernization, lobbying, and promotional activities, such as improving the ease of placing business digitally. This contrasts with the Franchise Board's internal governance role for Lloyd's managing agents; the PRA's prudential regulatory role; and the IUA's role as a trade body for London Market companies. The source explicitly names the LMG as the entity ensuring the market "maintains and improves its position," a key piece of market-level awareness in The Insurance Company Environment topic. This connects directly to why the UK's legal system, by fostering certainty via English law precedents, has given the LMG a powerful foundation to promote.

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Question 2

What is the most likely explanation for the company's return on capital employed being lower than its competitors if they have a good combined ratio?

A.Lower expense ratio.
B.Higher premium retention.
C.Poor investment returns.
D.Higher solvency margin.

Correct Answer: C

The combined ratio measures underwriting profitability (claims + expenses / premiums). A "good" combined ratio (below 100%) means the company's core insurance operations are profitable. If, despite this, the company's return on capital employed (ROCE)-a broader measure including investment returns on the capital base-is lagging competitors, the cause must lie outside the underwriting activity. The most logical diagnostic is Poor investment returns . The company is likely earning a lower yield on the substantial asset portfolio backing its technical reserves and capital than its competitors, dragging down the overall return on the equity and capital employed. This is a classic analytical point linking the Financial Performance Ratios topic to the Investment and Asset Management topic. A lower expense ratio or higher retention would improve, not weaken, performance. A higher solvency margin, if the capital is excess and idle, could also depress ROCE, but poor investment yield on total assets is the most direct explanation linking the income from invested assets to the overall return equation.

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Question 3

Which management style would it be best to adopt during a period of radical change?

A.Democratic.
B.Autocratic.
C.Paternalistic.
D.Laissez-faire.

Correct Answer: B

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Question 4

A risk assessment rating framework assesses risks based on:

A.impact and probability.
B.cost and benefit.
C.market share and premium volume.
D.liquidity and solvency.

Correct Answer: A

Every formal risk assessment framework, including the one underpinning an insurer's Solvency II internal model and Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA), fundamentally evaluates risks by two core dimensions: impact and probability . Impact measures the severity of the financial or operational damage if a risk event occurs (e.g., the effect on the solvency coverage ratio). Probability assesses the likelihood of the event occurring within a defined time horizon. By mapping each identified risk on a heat map of impact versus probability, management can define the risk profile and prioritize mitigation, a core concept in the Capital Management and Solvency topic. The source confirms this as the basis of a risk assessment rating framework. The other pairings, such as cost/benefit or liquidity/solvency, are other types of analysis, but impact and probability are the direct inputs into the calculation kernel that then produces the outputs informing the insurer's capital adequacy and Individual Capital Guidance.

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Question 5

At what level of information will the insurer's overall budget be categorised?

A.Strategic
B.Tactical
C.Operational
D.Transactional

Correct Answer: A

Budgeting within an insurer occurs at multiple hierarchical levels, each serving a different purpose. The overall, company-wide budget is unequivocally categorized at the Strategic level. A strategic budget aligns with the long-term goals set by the Board and is concerned with the aggregate allocation of capital, revenue targets, and profitability objectives for the entire organization. This top-tier budget sets the framework within which more granular, shorter-term budgets are developed. Tactical budgets exist at the divisional or departmental level to translate strategy into specific plans (e.g., an underwriting department budget for a line of business). Operational budgets are the most detailed, often for a single unit or function over a short time frame. The external source confirms that the "insurer's overall budget [categorised] at what level of information" is "Strategic." This aligns with the concept that strategy is corporate-wide and high-level, while tactical and operational plans cascade from it. This is a foundational element of the Management Accounting and Budgeting main topic, where the linkage between strategic intent and financial control is managed through budgetary policy.

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