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  1. Home
  2. CISI Certification
  3. ICWIM Exam
  4. CISI.ICWIM.v2025-08-09.q74 Dumps
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Question 41

You are analysing two similar funds, A and B, which have similar returns. However, you notice Fund B has a much higher standard deviation than Fund A. This implies that:

Correct Answer: C
Standard deviation measures the volatility of returns. A higher standard deviation means higher risk.
* Key Concept:
* Fund A (Lower Standard Deviation) = Lower Risk.
* Fund B (Higher Standard Deviation) = Higher Risk.
* Risk-Return Tradeoff: Fund B may not necessarily be more profitable, but it is riskier.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Risk Metrics), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.
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Question 42

How does 'relief at source' normally operate in relation to overseas dividend income?

Correct Answer: A
Relief at source for overseas dividend income typically operates by reducing the withholding tax applied to dividends at the source. This is achieved through double taxation agreements (DTAs) between countries, which set out reduced tax rates for such income.
Example:If the standard withholding tax rate in a country is 30%, a DTA may reduce this to 15% for eligible investors.
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Question 43

What causes the price of a closed-ended investment company to trade at a premium or discount to net asset value (NAV)?

Correct Answer: C
* Price of Closed-Ended Investment Companies:
* These companies issue a fixed number of shares. Prices can trade at a premium or discount to NAV based on market demand and supply for their shares.
* Strong demand increases prices above NAV (premium), while weak demand decreases prices below NAV (discount).
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: Charges affect long-term returns but not immediate pricing.
* B: Tax status is generally consistent and not a determinant of premiums or discounts.
* D: Interest rates indirectly affect demand but are not a direct cause.
References:
* ICWIM Module 3: Discussion on pricing mechanisms of closed-ended funds and NAV premiums
/discounts.
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Question 44

What is the first action an adviser takes to ensure that their advice is suitable for a client?

Correct Answer: C
The first step in financial planning is to gather sufficient client information before making any recommendations.
* Key Information Required:
* Income, expenses, and financial goals.
* Risk tolerance and investment horizon.
* Tax status and personal circumstances.
* Regulatory Requirement:
* The FCA's suitability rules mandate that advisers perform a full fact-finding process before offering advice.
# Reference: FCA Handbook (COBS 9 - Suitability), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.
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Question 45

For what reason is holding bearer shares potentially disadvantageous?

Correct Answer: B
Bearer shares are physical certificates that grant ownership, and the rights to those shares are with the bearer.
If the certificate is lost or stolen, the investment could effectively be unrecoverable since ownership cannot be traced back to the investor.
* Not being publicly named (A): This is an advantage of bearer shares, not a disadvantage.
* Difficulty in valuation (C): Bearer shares' value is similar to registered shares based on market conditions.
* Impossible to sell part (D): Fractional transactions can still occur with bearer shares.
References:
* International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Risks associated with different forms of equity ownership.
* Legal frameworks around bearer shares and their potential misuse in financial systems.
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