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  2. CompTIA Certification
  3. 220-1201 Exam
  4. CompTIA.220-1201.v2025-12-30.q106 Dumps
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Question 91

A technician wants to monitor network statistics for devices communicating with one another on the local subnet Which of the following devices should the technician install.

Correct Answer: A
A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.
Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.
Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.
Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a local subnet.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools.
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Question 92

A user reports that the printouts from a laser printer have lines and smudges on them. The printer is also intermittently misfeeding the paper. Which of the following components should a technician replace to address this issue?

Correct Answer: B
Amaintenance kitfor a laser printer often includesrollers, fuser, and other partsthat wear out over time. If the printer issmudging and misfeeding, it's a sign thatmultiple components are failing, which a maintenance kit is designed to resolve.
Option A (Fuser):May cause smudging if it's not heating correctly, but it won't resolve paper misfeeds alone.
Option C (Corona wire):Can cause poor image quality if dirty but doesn't affect paper feeding.
Option D (Toner cartridge):Can cause streaks if defective, but not paper feed issues.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
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Question 93

Which of the following minimizes the time it takes to connect a display, keyboard, mouse, and network cable to a laptop?

Correct Answer: B
A port replicator is designed to allow a user to quickly connect a laptop to multiple peripherals (display, keyboard, mouse, network, etc.) using a single interface, reducing setup time.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 - Laptop hardware and connections:
"Port replicators offer quick connections for multiple peripherals, streamlining the process of docking and undocking a laptop." Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Laptop Hardware
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1
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Question 94

While reviewing options in the BIOS/UEFI settings page to fix a laptop issue, a support technician notices an option to clear existing TPM keys. Which of the following would most likely happen if the TPM is cleared?

Correct Answer: A
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security feature used to store cryptographic keys, such as those used for encryption, authentication, or device identification. It plays a critical role in ensuring secure operations for encrypted drives, BitLocker, and secure boot processes. Clearing TPM keys involves wiping all stored cryptographic data, which can lead to several consequences depending on what the TPM was being used for. Let's break it down:
A:Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
Encrypted hard drives, such as those secured with BitLocker encryption, rely on the cryptographic keys stored in the TPM to unlock data.
Clearing the TPM will erase these keys, making it impossible for the encrypted drive to decrypt its contents unless a recovery key (separate from the TPM) is available. Without this recovery key, the data will likely become inaccessible.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference: This falls under Objective 3.5, which covers understanding BIOS/UEFI configurations, TPM functions, and securing devices.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B:All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
Clearing the TPM does not erase security certificates stored in the operating system or other areas.
Certificates are generally managed by the OS or specific applications, not the TPM.Clearing the TPM only affects cryptographic keys and data stored in the TPM chip, so this is incorrect.
C:The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform.
Mobile Device Management (MDM) enrollment typically does not rely on the TPM. While certain enterprise security configurations may involve the TPM, clearing it does not inherently trigger MDM reenrollment unless specifically tied to the MDM configuration.
D:The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.
While domain registrations may sometimes use TPM for authentication or secure operations, clearing the TPM alone does not require re-registering the device to the domain. The domain registration and authentication process rely more on system-level credentials than the TPM itself.
Practical Example:
A user enables BitLocker on their laptop, which relies on the TPM to store the encryption key. Later, if they clear the TPM via BIOS/UEFI without saving the BitLocker recovery key separately, they will not be able to unlock the hard drive, leading to data loss unless the recovery key is available. This is a common issue when technicians or users inadvertently clear the TPM without understanding its role in encryption.
CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:
Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components, including UEFI/BIOS security settings (TPM, secure boot, etc.).
This question tests understanding of TPM functionality, encryption technologies, and secure device configurations.
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Question 95

A user reports poor performance on the application server.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review the information presented in each chart to determine which drives need to be replaced.
Select the appropriate replacement drive that should be used, for the least performance degradation to the server.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Correct Answer:
See the detailed solution in explanation below.
Explanation:
The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.
Recommended Replacement Drive:
To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:
SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).
Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.
In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.
A user reports poor performance on the
application server.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review
the information presented in each chart to
determine which drives need to be replaced.
Select the appropriate replacement drive
that should be used, for the least
performance degradation to the server.
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