A security team is reviewing the findings in a report that was delivered after a third party performed a penetration test. One of the findings indicated that a web application form field is vulnerable to cross-site scripting. Which of the following application security techniques should the security analyst recommend the developer implement to prevent this vulnerability?
Correct Answer: C
Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the web application. Input validation can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which exploit the vulnerability of a web application to execute malicious scripts in the browser of a victim. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and its users. Input validation can be implemented on both the client-side and the server-side, but server-side validation is more reliable and secure. Input validation can use various methods, such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, escaping, encoding, and sanitizing the input data. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 70. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2
Question 27
Which of the following is the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network?
Correct Answer: D
An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage. However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware, or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 9: Network Security, page 449 1
Question 28
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure thatthe test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements: * The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data. * The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test. * The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use. * The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test. * The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results. * The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows. * The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information. Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization. References =https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engageme https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing
Question 29
Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's PII?
Correct Answer: D
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer's PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets.
Question 30
Which of the following is the most likely to be included as an element of communication in a security awareness program?
