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  2. ISC Certification
  3. CSSLP Exam
  4. ISC.CSSLP.v2023-02-09.q213 Dumps
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Question 81

Which of the following actions does the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) technology take when an agent detects a policy violation for data of all states? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Correct Answer: A,B,D
When an agent detects a policy violation for data of all states, the Data Loss prevention (DLP) technology takes one of the following actions: It creates an alert. It notifies an administrator of a violation. It quarantines the file to a secure location. It encrypts the file. It blocks the transmission of content. Answer C is incorrect. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) reconstructs the session when data is in motion.
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Question 82

The organization level is the Tier 1 and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. What are the various Tier 1 activities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Correct Answer: A,B,C
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. It includes the following points: The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks. During risk assessment, the methods and procedures the organization plans to use, to evaluate the significance of the risks identified. The types and extent of risk mitigation measures the organization plans to employ, to address identified risks. The level of risk tolerance. According to the environment of operation, how the organization plans to monitor risks on an ongoing basis, given the inevitable changes to organizational information system.
The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, in order to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.Answer: D is incorrect. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 3.
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Question 83

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?

Correct Answer: A
Qualitative risk analysis is the best answer as it is a fast and low-cost approach to analyze the risk impact and its effect. It can promote certain risks onto risk response planning. Qualitative Risk Analysis uses the likelihood and impact of the identified risks in a fast and cost-effective manner. Qualitative Risk Analysis establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or Risk Response Plan by evaluating the precedence of risks with a concern to impact on the project's scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. The qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine proportion of effect and theoretical response. The inputs to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process are: Organizational process assets Project Scope Statement Risk Management Plan Risk Register Answer B is incorrect. Historical information can be helpful in the qualitative risk analysis, but it is not the best answer for the question as historical information is not always available (consider new projects). Answer D is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis is in-depth and often requires a schedule and budget for the analysis. Answer C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is not a valid answer for risk analysis processes.
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Question 84

Which of the following secure coding principles and practices defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it?

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Use a consistent coding style is one of the principles and practices that contribute to defensive coding. This principle defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it. For this purpose, all programmers of a team must follow the same guidelines. Answer: D is incorrect. Keep code simple and small defines that it is easy to verify the software security when a programmer uses small and simple code base. Answer: A is incorrect. Make code forward and backward traceable defines that traceability is necessary in order to validate requirements, prevent defects, and find and solve inconsistencies among all objects generated in the SDLC phases. Answer: B is incorrect. Review code during and after coding defines that code must be examined in order to identify coding errors in modules.
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Question 85

Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. AnswerD is incorrect. The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). Answer: A is incorrect. The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) Answer: C is incorrect. Safeguard acts as a countermeasure for reducing the risk associated with a specific threat or a group of threats.
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