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  2. ISTQB Certification
  3. ISTQB-CTFL Exam
  4. ISTQB.ISTQB-CTFL.v2023-10-24.q28 Dumps
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Question 6

A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.
Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

Correct Answer: D
Defect clustering is a testing principle that states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected during pre-release testing, or are responsible for most of the operational failures. Defect clustering can be explained by Pareto's principle (also known as the 80-20 rule), which states that approximately 80% of the problems are found in 20% of the modules. Defect clustering suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, as it implies that more effort should be allocated to test the modules that have shown high defect density or criticality. Pesticide paradox is another testing principle that states that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually they will no longer find any new defects. Pesticide paradox suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but not based on defect clustering, but rather on test diversity and coverage. Early testing is a testing principle that states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development life cycle and should be focused on defined objectives. Early testing does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a proactive approach to prevent defects from occurring or propagating. Absence-of-errors fallacy is a testing principle that states that finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users' needs and expectations. Absence-of-errors fallacy does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a focus on quality attributes and user requirements. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 9-10.
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Question 7

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
I Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.
II Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.
III Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.
IV The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Correct Answer: D
IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally. The conditions in the decision table represent both positive and negative tests, depending on whether they are valid or invalid inputs for the test item. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 4, page 42-43.
Explanation:
A decision table is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). The following statements about decision tables are true:
II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests. Decision tables can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. Decision tables can help cover all possible combinations or scenarios in a systematic way.
III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. A column of a decision table represents a unique combination of condition entries and action entries. Several test cases can be selected for each column by varying other input values or expected results that are not part of the decision table. The following statements about decision tables are false:
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Question 8

Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Correct Answer: B
A formal review is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. A formal review can have various roles involved, such as manager, moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The manager responsibilities in formal review include all except one of the following:
Planning the review (correct responsibility)
Determines if the review objectives have been met (incorrect responsibility) Decide on the execution of reviews (correct responsibility) Allocate time for review (correct responsibility) The responsibility of determining if the review objectives have been met belongs to the moderator role, not to the manager role. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 28-29.
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Question 9

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:
Group I: 0-12
Group II; 13-18
Group III: over 18
Which of the below represent boundary values?

Correct Answer: A
A correct list of boundary values for the age input should include the minimum and maximum values of each age group (0, 12, 13, 18), as well as the values just below and above each boundary (-1, 19). Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that involves testing the values at or near the boundaries of an input domain or output range, as these values are more likely to cause errors than values in the middle. Option A satisfies this condition, as it has all six boundary values (-1, 0, 12, 13, 18, 19). Option B has two values from the same equivalence class (12 and 13), option C has only four boundary values (0, 12, 18, 19), and option D has no boundary values at all. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 34.
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Question 10

As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X and Z) sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.
Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?

Correct Answer: B
An incident report is a document that records the details of an incident. An incident report typically contains the following items:
Identifier: A unique identifier for the incident report
Summary: A concise summary of the incident
Description: A detailed description of the incident, including the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, and any relevant screenshots or logs Severity: The degree of impact that the incident has on the system Priority: The level of urgency for resolving the incident Status: The current state of the incident, such as new, open, resolved, closed, etc.
Resolution: The action taken to resolve the incident, such as fix, workaround, reject, etc. Based on the information given in the question, the tester would be able to write down all of these items except for the test case identifier. A test case identifier is a unique identifier for a test case that is used to link it to other test artifacts, such as test plans, test scripts, test results or incident reports. However, since the tester is performing exploratory testing, there is no predefined test case that can be associated with the incident. Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Exploratory testing does not use formal test cases or scripts, but rather uses test charters or missions that guide the tester's actions and objectives. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33; Chapter 5, page 47-48.
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