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  1. Home
  2. Medical Council of Canada Certification
  3. MCCQE Exam
  4. MedicalCouncilofCanada.MCCQE.v2025-10-13.q86 Dumps
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Question 1

A 43-year-old man is referred to you for an incidental finding of elevated hemoglobin. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin
185 g/L (130-170)
Mean corpuscular volume
92 fL (60-100)
White blood cells
7.8×1037.8×103 / L (4-10)
Platelets
250×103250×103 / L (130-400)
His BMI is 23. He has type 2 diabetes for which he takes gliclazide MR 60 mg daily. Which one of the following features on history could explain his laboratory abnormality?

Correct Answer: E
Elevated hemoglobin in the absence of polycythemia vera can be due to secondary causes such as chronic hypoxia. Central sleep apnea, often associated with diabetes or neurologic conditions, leads to intermittent hypoxia and compensatory erythropoiesis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology and Respiratory Medicine, "Polycythemia" Section:
"Secondary erythrocytosis may result from hypoxic conditions including sleep apnea, COPD, or high altitude.
Assess for sleep-disordered breathing in patients with elevated hemoglobin and no myeloproliferative features." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Abnormalities):
"Candidates must investigate secondary causes of elevated hemoglobin, including hypoxia-related conditions." Hypertension (A), hypothyroidism (C), and cirrhosis (D) do not cause polycythemia. Alcohol (B) typically causes macrocytosis and anemia.
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Question 2

A 21-year-old man presents to the office with persistent pain and swelling of the wrist 2 weeks after falling on his outstretched hand. Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs of the wrist taken at the time of the injury showed no evidence of fracture or dislocation. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: A
Scaphoid fractures are often radiographically occult on initial presentation and can present later with persistent pain and swelling in the anatomical snuffbox. They typically occur following a fall on an outstretched hand. If missed, they can lead to avascular necrosis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Orthopedics, Wrist Injuries:
"Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures. X-rays may be negative early, so high suspicion requires immobilization and repeat imaging after 10-14 days." MCCQE1 Objectives - Surgery > Musculoskeletal Trauma:
"Candidates must recognize that some fractures, such as scaphoid, may not appear on initial imaging but require clinical suspicion and follow-up imaging or immobilization." Other options (B and C) are less likely without radiographic evidence. De Quervain tenosynovitis (D) presents with radial wrist pain unrelated to trauma and worsens with thumb movement.
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Question 3

A 62-year-old woman is taken to the operating room for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Induction of anesthesia triggers a severe hypertensive crisis that ultimately resolves after administration of a 5 mg bolus of phentolamine.
Which one of the following is most consistent with this presentation?

Correct Answer: B
This presentation is classic for an undiagnosed pheochromocytoma, which causes episodic or crisis-level hypertension due to excess catecholamines. Anesthesia or surgical manipulation can trigger massive catecholamine release, leading to hypertensive crisis. Phentolamine, an alpha-blocker, is the appropriate treatment.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Pheochromocytoma:
"Pheochromocytomas may precipitate hypertensive crises during surgery. Elevated plasma catecholamines and urinary metanephrines confirm diagnosis." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:
"Candidates should suspect pheochromocytoma in perioperative hypertensive crises and confirm with plasma or urine catecholamines/metanephrines." Low metanephrines (E) would argue against pheochromocytoma. TSH (A), cortisol (D), and renin (C) are unrelated to acute intraoperative hypertensive episodes of this nature.
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Question 4

A 38-year-old marathon runner presents to your office with a 6-month history of increasing right hip pain.
The pain is worse with acclivity and has prevented him from running for the last 4 months. He denies fever or chills. His wife adds that she is concerned because he is increasingly disengaged with the family and not interested in other activities he usually enjoys, including sex. Which one of the following is the best next step in management?

Correct Answer: D
In a patient presenting with physical symptoms (e.g., hip pain) and prominent psychosocial red flags - loss of interest, decreased libido, and withdrawal - the next step is to screen for depression. Somatization is common in mood disorders.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Depression:
"Patients with depression may present with somatic complaints. A thorough psychosocial assessment is essential in such cases, particularly when symptoms interfere with functioning." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Mood Disorders:
"Candidates must consider depression in patients with non-specific physical symptoms and reduced interest or motivation, particularly with social withdrawal." Imaging or physiotherapy may be needed later, but the most urgent and informative step is psychiatric screening.
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Question 5

A 63-year-old woman presents to your office with a history of progressive abdominal discomfort over the past five months. She reports bloating and difficult digestion with constipation. She has no urinary symptoms and denies vaginal or rectal bleeding. An abdominal ultrasound shows a large complex pelvic mass with internal multiloculation and moderate ascites. The cancer antigen 125 (CA 125) is elevated at 1023 U/mL (< 35 U
/mL). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Postmenopausal women with abdominal distension, bloating, a complex pelvic mass, and elevated CA-125 are highly suggestive of epithelial ovarian cancer, especially serous cystadenocarcinoma-the most common type.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology / Oncology:
"Serous epithelial ovarian carcinoma presents with vague abdominal symptoms, ascites, complex pelvic mass, and elevated CA-125." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-5: Ovarian Masses):
"Candidates must recognize signs and investigations of ovarian cancer, including elevated tumor markers and imaging findings." Ovarian hyperstimulation (A) occurs in fertility treatments. Colorectal cancer (C) may mimic these symptoms but typically causes rectal bleeding and has lower CA-125 levels. Uterine adenocarcinoma (D) usually causes bleeding. Hematosalpinx (E) presents with pelvic pain, not ascites.
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