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  1. Home
  2. NCLEX Certification
  3. NCLEX-RN Exam
  4. NCLEX.NCLEX-RN.v2024-01-19.q623 Dumps
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Question 551

After the fetal activity test (nonstress test) is completed, the RN is looking at the test results on the monitor strip. The RN observes that the fetal heart accelerated 5 beats/min with each fetal movement. The accelerations lasted ≥15 seconds and occurred 3 times during the 20- minute test. The RN knows that these test results will be interpreted as:

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) A nonstress test that shows at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 bpm with fetal activity, lasting ≥15 seconds over a 20-minute period. (B) Reactive criteria are not met. The accelerations of the fetal heart rate are not at least 15 bpm and do not last 15 seconds. This could mean fetal well-being is compromised. Usually a contraction stress test is ordered if the nonstress test results are negative. (C) An unsatisfactory test means the data cannot be interpreted, or there was inadequate fetal activity. If this happens, usually the test is ordered to be done at a later date. (D) A negative test is a term used to describe the results of a contraction stress test.
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Question 552

A female client is started on warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg po bid. To adequately evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy, the nurse must know that this medication:

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
(A) Thrombolytic agents (e.g., streptokinase) directly activate plasminogen, dissolving fibrin deposits, which in turn dissolves clots that have already formed. (B) Heparin prevents the formation of clots by potentiating the effects of antithrombin III and the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. (C) Warfarin prevents the formation of clots by interfering with the hepatic synthesis of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. (D) Platelets initiate the coagulation of blood by adhering to each other and the site of injury to form platelet plugs.
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Question 553

A 25-year-old outpatient presents with a diagnosis of compulsive personality disorder. His coworkers become annoyed with his rigid, perfectionistic manner and preoccupation with trivial details and schedules. A nursing intervention appropriate for this client would include:

Correct Answer: D
(A)
This answer is incorrect. The client will work hard at the activity instead of enjoying it.
(B)
This answer is incorrect. The nurse should allow the client to discuss these thoughts, within limits, not to avoid discussing them. (C) This answer is incorrect. The compulsive client tends to control time to excess. It should not be encouraged. (D) This answer is correct. A contract with the client regarding the amount of time that will be spent discussing the compulsive activities is appropriate. Time allotted should be gradually decreased.
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Question 554

A 5-year-old child cries continually in her bed. Her parents have been unsuccessful in assisting her in expressing her feelings. Which activity should the nurse provide the child to assist her in expressing her feelings?

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
(A) Books increase cognition, assist with fine motor skills, and augment language development. (B) Music provides auditory stimulation and large-muscle activity. (C) Riding toys provide large-muscle activity. (D) Puppets allow expression of feelings and fears that otherwise could not be directly communicated.
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Question 555

In acute episodes of mania, lithium is effective in 1-2 weeks, but it may take up to 4 weeks, or even a few months, to treat symptoms fully. Sometimes an antipsychotic agent is prescribed during the first few days or weeks of an acute episode to manage severe behavioral excitement and acute psychotic symptoms. In addition to the lithium, which one of the following medications might the physician prescribe?

Correct Answer: B
(A) Diazepam is an antianxiety medication and is not designed to reduce psychotic symptoms. (B) Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication and may be used until the lithium takes effect. (C) Sertraline is an antidepressant and is used primarily to reduce symptoms of depression. (D) Alprazolam is an antianxiety medication and is not designed to reduce psychotic symptoms.
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