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  2. ISC Certification
  3. CSSLP Exam
  4. ISC.CSSLP.v2024-03-08.q123 Dumps
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Question 36

Gary is the project manager for his project. He and the project team have completed the qualitative risk analysis process and are about to enter the quantitative risk analysis process when Mary, the project sponsor, wants to know what quantitative risk analysis will review. Which of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis will review?

Correct Answer: A
Once the risk events have passed through qualitative risk analysis, then the risk events must be reviewed to determine the effect of the risks on the project's competing demands. Answer D is incorrect. While the quantitative risk analysis process will review the risk events for probability and impact, this statement does not answer the question as completely as answer option A.
Answer C is incorrect. The quantitative risk analysis process does not review every risk identified - only the risks which require further analysis. Answer B is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis process does not begin the risk response process. Its goal is to determine the effect of certain risk events on the project's competing demands.
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Question 37

The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) introduces five major life cycle modeling activities that drive a service evolution during design-time and run-time. Which of the following activities integrates SOA software assets and establishes SOA logical environment dependencies?

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The service-oriented logical architecture modeling integrates SOA software assets and establishes SOA logical environment dependencies. It also offers foster service reuse, loose coupling and consolidation. AnswerA is incorrect. The service-oriented discovery and analysis modeling discovers and analyzes services for granularity, reusability, interoperability, loose-coupling, and identifies consolidation opportunities. Answer B is incorrect. The service-oriented business integration modeling identifies service integration and alignment opportunities with business domains' processes. Answer: D is incorrect. The service-oriented logical design modeling establishes service relationships and message exchange paths.
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Question 38

Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of affairs?

Correct Answer: D
A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and triggers for initiating planned actions. Answer A is incorrect. Disaster recovery is the process, policies, and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of technology infrastructure critical to an organization after a natural or human-induced disaster. Answer B is incorrect. It deals with the plans and procedures that identify and prioritize the critical business functions that must be preserved. Answer C is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible.
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Question 39

Which of the following are examples of the application programming interface (API)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

Correct Answer: B,C,D
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Perl, .NET, and PHP are examples of the application programming interface (API). API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools that users can use to work with a component, application, or operating system. It consists of one or more DLLs that provide specific functionality. API helps in reducing the development time of applications by reducing application code. Most operating environments, such as MS- Windows, provide an API so that programmers can write applications consistent with the operating environment. Answer: A is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page.
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Question 40

Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following areas can be exploited in a penetration test? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Correct Answer: A,C,D,E,F,G
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Following are the areas that can be exploited in a penetration test: Kernel flaws: Kernel flaws refer to the exploitation of kernel code flaws in the operating system. Buffer overflows: Buffer overflows refer to the exploitation of a software failure to properly check for the length of input data. This overflow can cause malicious behavior on the system. Race conditions: A race condition is a situation in which an attacker can gain access to a system as a privileged user. File and directory permissions: In this area, an attacker exploits weak permissions restrictions to gain unauthorized access of documents. Trojan horses: These are malicious programs that can exploit an information system by attaching themselves in valid programs and files. Social engineering:
In this technique, an attacker uses his social skills and persuasion to acquire valuable information that can be used to conduct an attack against a system.
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