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  2. NABP Certification
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  4. NABP.NAPLEX.v2022-04-12.q74 Dumps
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Question 71

A 15-year-old presents with 6 days of nasal congestion with thin, clear rhinorrhea. She notes mild facial pain but has had no fevers. She feels her symptoms are improving.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
This patient shows symptoms of acute sinusitis. The most common etiology of which is viruses. Indications that an infection is viral as opposed to bacterial included a shorter infection tie (less than 10 days) and no purulent discharge (hers is watery). She does not show any evidence of a complication developing and even notes that her symptoms are improving. If her symptoms were attributed to a bacterium, then the most common cause of acute sinusitis is Streptococcus pneumoniae followed by Haemophilus influenza, then Moraxella catarrhalis. Anaerobic species such as Bacteroides fragilis and Staphylococcus aureus are more commonly found in patients with chronic sinusitis (sinusitis lasting longer than 12 weeks). This is important to realize before indiscriminately providing antibiotics for these patients.
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Question 72

Which of the following would be most appropriate to treat stenotrophomonas maltophilia?

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Primary treatment for stenotrophomonas maltophilia is SMX-TMP. Meropenem, ciprofloxacin, and vancomycin have no coverage.
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Question 73

TM is a 78 YOW with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and arthritis was admitted for proximal arterial fibrillation.
While in the hospital she was placed on diltiazem drip and eventually, converted to oral diltiazem 240mg. Pt's home medication includes Simvastatin 40mg po daily , hydrochlorothiazide 25mg po daily , Lisinopril 20mg daily and Acetaminophen. Her LDL-C is 100mg /dL.
What would be the most appropriate change to make on her therapy?

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Diltiazem has a major drug interaction with Simvastatin. Diltiazem is a CYP3A4 inhibitor, and since Simvastatin is metabolized by CYP3A4, its level can build up and the risk of myopathy increases. It is recommended to switch to a non-CYP3A inhibitor such as Pitavastatin, Pravastatin, or Rosuvastatin, and if Simvastatin is to be kept on it should not exceed 10 mg/day. The same interaction also exists with lovastatin, and the recommendation is to not exceed a total dose of 20 mg/day po of Lovastatin. Given the current options, the best choice is to change to Atorvstatin 40 mg po daily.
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Question 74

WM did not receive influenza vaccine prior to the start of this season, it's now December. He did get influenza vaccine last year. Which of the following is correct course of action?

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Influenza vaccine is recommended annually, thus, WM should not skip it this year, and B is incorrect. Also, per the CDC, seasonal influenza outbreaks can occur as early as October, however, most activity peaks in January or later. Thus, it is not too late for WM to receive his vaccine in December, thus A is incorrect. Lastly, antiviral medications such as Tamiflu are an important adjunct to vaccinations. They are recommended as early as possible for any patient with confirmed or suspected influenza who, is 1) Hospitalized, 2) has severe, complicated, or progressive illness or 3) is at higher risk for influenza complications. Thus, WM is not a candidate with the given information and C is incorrect. Starting Tamiflu or Amantadine is not recommended for prevention. It has indication for treatment and prophylaxis.
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