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  2. PRMIA Certification
  3. 8010 Exam
  4. PRMIA.8010.v2022-03-04.q88 Dumps
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Question 46

Which loss event type is the loss of personally identifiableclient information classified as under the Basel II framework?

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Choice 'b' is the correct answer. All other answers areincorrect.
Refer to the detailed loss event type classification under Basel II (see Annex 9 of the accord). You should know the exact names of all loss event types, and examples of each.
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Question 47

If P be the transition matrix for 1 year, how can we find the transition matrix for 4 months?

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Assuming time invariance and the Markov property, it is easy to calculate the transition matrix for any time period as P^n, where P is the given transition matrix for one period andn the number of time periods that we need to compute the new transition matrix for.
However, when the new time period is less than the time period the matrix is available for, the only way to deriving a transition matrix for a partial period is to numerically calculate a matrix M such that M^n = P.
Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. Taking cube roots of a matrix is not a possible operation, dividing by 3 gives a matrix meaningless in this context, and P x P x P will give us the transition matrix for 3 years, not
1/3rd of a year.
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Question 48

Which of the following statements are true:
I. Credit VaR often assumes a one year time horizon, as opposed to a shorter time horizon for market risk as credit activities generally span alonger time period.
II. Credit losses in the banking book should be assessed on the basis of mark-to-market mode as opposed to the default-only mode.
III. The confidence level used in the calculation of credit capital is high when the objective is tomaintain a high credit rating for the institution.
IV. Credit capital calculations for securities with liquid markets and held for proprietary positions should be based on marking positions to market.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Statement I is correct as credit VaR calculations often use a one year time horizon. This is primarily because the cycle in respect of credit related activities, such as loan loss reviews, accounting cycles for borrowers etc last a year.
Statement II is false. There are two ways in which loss assessments in respect of credit risk can be made:
default mode, where losses are considered only in respect of default, and no losses are recognized in respect of the deterioration of the creditworthiness of the borrower (which is often expressed through a credit rating transition matrix); and the mark-to-market mode, where losses due to both defaults and credit quality are considered. The default mode is used for the loan book where the institution has lentmoneys and generally intends to hold the loan on its books till maturity. The mark to market mode is used for traded securities which are not held to maturity, or are held only for trading.
Statement III is correct. The confidence interval, or the quintile of losses used for maintaining credit ratings tends to be very high as the possibility of the institution's default needs to be remote.
Statement IV is correct too, for the reasons explained earlier.
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Question 49

Loss from a lawsuit from an employee due to physical harm caused while at work is categorized per Basel II as:

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Choice 'a' is the correct answer. Refer to the detailed loss event type classification under Basel II (see Annex 9 of the accord). You should know the exact names of all loss event types, and examples of each.
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Question 50

When pricing credit risk for an exposure, which of the following is a better measure than the others:

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Exposure for derivative instruments can vary significantly over the lifetimeof the instrument, depending upon how the market moves. The potential future exposure represents the extremes, not the most likely outcome.
The expected exposure is the most suitable measure for pricing the credit risk. Over time, as multiple transactionsare entered into, the expectation (or the mean) will be realized - though individual transactions may have more or less by way of exposure.
The notional amount may not be relevant, though for loans it may be the most important contributor to the expected exposure. Mark-to-market will represent the exposure at a given point in time, but cannot be predicted nor be used to price the credit risk.
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