FreeQAs
 Request Exam  Contact
  • Home
  • View All Exams
  • New QA's
  • Upload
PRACTICE EXAMS:
  • Oracle
  • Fortinet
  • IBM
  • Juniper
  • Microsoft
  • Cisco
  • Citrix
  • CompTIA
  • VMware
  • ISC
  • SAP
  • EMC
  • PMI
  • HP
  • Salesforce
  • Other
  • Oracle
    Oracle
  • Fortinet
    Fortinet
  • IBM
    IBM
  • Juniper
    Juniper
  • Microsoft
    Microsoft
  • Cisco
    Cisco
  • Citrix
    Citrix
  • CompTIA
    CompTIA
  • VMware
    VMware
  • ISC
    ISC
  • SAP
    SAP
  • EMC
    EMC
  • PMI
    PMI
  • HP
    HP
  • Salesforce
    Salesforce
  1. Home
  2. PRMIA Certification
  3. 8010 Exam
  4. PRMIA.8010.v2022-03-04.q88 Dumps
  • ««
  • «
  • …
  • 10
  • 11
  • 12
  • 13
  • 14
  • 15
  • 16
  • 17
  • 18
  • 19
Download Now

Question 86

When building a operational loss distribution by combining a loss frequency distribution and a loss severity distribution, it is assumed that:
I. The severity of losses is conditional upon the numberof loss events
II. The frequency of losses is independent from the severity of the losses III. Both the frequency and severity of loss events are dependent upon the state of internal controls in the bank

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
When a operational loss frequency distribution (which, for example, may be based upon a Poisson distribution) and a loss severity distribution (for example, based upon a lognormal distribution), it is assumed that the frequency of losses and the severity of the losses are completely independent and do not impact each other. Therefore statement II is correct, and the others are not valid assumptions underlying the operational loss distribution.
insert code

Question 87

Under the KMV Moody's approach to calculating expectingdefault frequencies (EDF), firms' default on obligations is likely when:

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
An observed fact that the KMV approach relies upon is that firms do not default when their liabilities exceed assets, but when asset values are somewhere between short term liabilities and the total liabilities. In fact, the
'default point' in the KMV methodology is defined as the short term debt plus half of the long term debt. The difference between expected value of the assets in one year and this 'default point', when expressed in terms of standard deviation of the asset values, is called the 'distance-to-default'.
Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect.
insert code

Question 88

According to the implied capital model, operational risk capital is estimated as:

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Operational risk capital estimated using the implied capital model is merely the capital that is not attributable to market or credit risk. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. All other responses are incorrect.
insert code
  • ««
  • «
  • …
  • 10
  • 11
  • 12
  • 13
  • 14
  • 15
  • 16
  • 17
  • 18
  • 19
[×]

Download PDF File

Enter your email address to download PRMIA.8010.v2022-03-04.q88 Dumps

Email:

FreeQAs

Our website provides the Largest and the most Latest vendors Certification Exam materials around the world.

Using dumps we provide to Pass the Exam, we has the Valid Dumps with passing guranteed just which you need.

  • DMCA
  • About
  • Contact Us
  • Privacy Policy
  • Terms & Conditions
©2026 FreeQAs

www.freeqas.com materials do not contain actual questions and answers from Cisco's certification exams.