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  1. Home
  2. PRMIA Certification
  3. 8010 Exam
  4. PRMIA.8010.v2022-03-04.q88 Dumps
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Question 26

Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the financial system just prior to the current financial crisis:
I. The system was robustagainst small random shocks, but not against large scale disturbances to key hubs in the network II. Financial innovation helped reduce the complexity of the financial network III. Knightian uncertainty refers to risk that can be quantified and measured IV. Feedback effects under stress accentuated liquidity problems

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Statement I is correct. The financial system proved to be stable against small shocks and disturbances, or shocksof a particular type (eg, the dotcom crash, the wars in the Persian Gulf); but rather fragile against other types of shocks, including disturbances to key market participants caused by a worsening of mortgage defaults.Statement II is incorrect. Financialinnovation, in particular the slicing and dicing of 'risk' through securitization, significantly increased interrelationships, dependence on the same risk factors, and the complexity of the system as a whole.Statement III is incorrect. A distinction is sometimes made between risk that is knowable, measureable, and quantifiable through parameters; and uncertainty, where the parameters are not known at all. The latter is called 'Knightian uncertainty' after the name of the scholar who came up with the distinction between the two.Statement IV is correct. Feedback effects had the greatest impact on liquidity which was tended to be hoarded, and on asset prices that tumbled as market participants tried to sell assets to become more liquid.Thus, choice is a the correct answer.
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Question 27

Which of the following statements is true:
I. Basel II requires banks to conduct stress testing in respect of their credit exposures in addition to stress testing for market risk exposures II. Basel II requires pooled probabilities of default (and not individual PDs for each exposure) to be used for credit risk capital calculations

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice 'b'
Both statements are accurate. Basel IIrequires pooled probabilities of default to be applied to risk buckets that contain similar exposures. Also, stress testing is mandatory for both market and credit risk.
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Question 28

Which of the following are valid criticisms of value at risk:
I. There are many risks that a VaR framework cannot model
II. VaR does not considerliquidity risk
III. VaR does not account for historical market movements
IV. VaR does not consider the risk of contagion

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Risks such as abrupt changes to a firm's businessmodel caused by legislation, or the introduction of capital controls in foreign countries where a firm in invested, geo-political risks etc are not modelable in the traditional sense. These risks cannot be modeled using VaR. Therefore statement I is correct.
VaR indeed does not consider liquidity risk, it is only concerned with the standard deviation of portfolio returns. Statement II is a valid criticism.
Statement III is not correct, as VaR can consider historical price movements.
Statement IV is correct,as VaR does not consider systemic risk or the risk of contagion.
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Question 29

Which of the following statements are true:
I. Credit risk and counterparty risk are synonymous
II. Counterparty risk is the contingent risk from a counterparty's default in derivative transactions III. Counterparty risk is the risk of a loan default or the risk from moneys lent directly IV. The exposure at default is difficult to estimate for credit risk as it depends upon market movements

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Credit risk is the risk from a borrower defaulting on moneys lent. Counterparty risk, on the other hand, is the risk that a counterparty to a derivativetransaction will be unable to pay at the time the transaction is in-the-money.
Credit risk therefore relates more to the banking book, counterparty risk relates more to the trading book.
Credit risk and counterparty risk differ in that for counterparty risk, the amount at risk fluctuates for counterparty risk depending upon the value of the underlying derivative. Counterparty risk generally starts at zero, for most swaps and other derivatives are near zero value at inception. Over time, as the prices of theunderlying instruments move, one party ends up owing money to the other. A deterioration in the financial situation of the party owing moneys may lead to a loss to the other party, resulting in counterparty risk.
Counterparty risk can also arise from stock lending operations and repo trades.
Credit risk on the other hand is the traditional risk of default by a borrower, or a bank's customer who has taken a loan or has an overdraft or other credit facility.
Statement I is therefore incorrect as credit riskand counterparty risks are different.
Statement II is correct as counterparty risk is 'contingent' in the sense it arises only if the transaction with the counterparty ends up being in-the-money, and the counterparty defaults.
Statement III is incorrect. The statement describes credit risk.
Statement IV is incorrect, as the exposure is known for moneys lent. Derivative exposures for the future are difficult to estimate, they can even turn from moneys owed to moneys due as the value of the underlying changes.
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Question 30

Under the standardized approach to calculating operational risk capital, how many business lines are a bank's activities divided into per Basel II?

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
In the Standardized Approach, banks' activities are divided into eight business lines: corporate finance, trading
& sales, retail banking, commercial banking, payment & settlement, agency services, asset management, and retail brokerage. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
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