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  1. Home
  2. PRMIA Certification
  3. 8010 Exam
  4. PRMIA.8010.v2022-03-04.q88 Dumps
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Question 6

For a given mean, which distribution would you prefer for frequency modeling where operational risk events are considered dependent, or in other words are seen as clustering together (as opposed to being independent)?

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
An interesting property that distinguishes the three most used distributions for modeling event frequency is that for a given mean, their variances differ. The ratio of variance to mean (the variance-mean ratio, calculated as variance/mean) can then be used to decide the kind of distribution to use. Both the variance and the mean can be estimated from available data points from the internal or external loss databases, or the scenario exercise.
The variance-mean ratio reflects how dispersed a distribution is. (In the PRMIA handbook, the variance to mean ratio has been described as the "Q-Factor".) The Poisson distribution has its mean equal to its variance, and therefore the variance to mean ratio is 1. For the negative binomial distribution, this ratio is always greater than 1, which means there is greater dispersion compared to the mean - or more intervals with low counts as well as more intervals with high counts. For the binomial distribution, the variance to mean ratio is less than one, which means it is less dispersed than the Poisson distribution with values closer to the mean.
In a situation where operational risk events are seen as clustering together, ordependent, the variance will be higher and it would be more appropriate to use the negative binomial distribution.
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Question 7

Which of the following statements are true:
I. Pre-settlement risk is the risk that one of the parties to a contract might default prior to the maturity date or expiry of the contract.
II. Pre-settlement risk can be partly mitigated by providing for early settlement in the agreements between the counterparties.
III. The current exposure from an OTC derivatives contract is equivalent to its current replacement value.
IV. Loan equivalent exposures are calculated even for exposures that are not loans as a practical matter for calculating credit risk exposure.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Pre-settlement risk is the risk that one of the counterparties defaults prior to the date for the maturity of the transaction in question. This may be an unrelated default, in fact there may have been no default on that particular contract, but the party may have defaulted on its other obligations, or filed for bankruptcy. To deal with such cases and to protect the interests of both the parties, it is common toprovide for immediate termination of positions and settlement based on the current replacement value of the contracts. Therefore statements I and II are correct.
Statement III is correct as well - the exposure from an OTC derivative contract derives fromits current replacement value, and not the notional. If the current replacement value is negative, then the credit exposure is considered equal to zero.
Statement IV is correct as it is quite common to restate all exposures - those from credit lines, OTC derivatives etc - in loan equivalent terms prior to estimating credit risk.
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Question 8

Which of the following statements is true:
I. When averaging quantiles of two Pareto distributions, the quantiles of theaveraged models are equal to the geometric average of the quantiles of the original models based upon the number of data items in each original model.
II. When modeling severity distributions, we can only use distributions which have fewer parameters thanthe number of datapoints we are modeling from.
III. If an internal loss data based model covers the same risks as a scenario based model, they can can be combined using the weighted average of their parameters.
IV If an internal loss model and a scenario based model address different risks, the models can be combined by taking their sums.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Statement I is true, the quantiles of the averaged models are equal to the geometric average of the quantiles of the original models.
Statement II is correct, the number of data points from which model parameters are estimated must be greater than the number of parameters. So if a distribution, say Poisson, has one parameter, we need at least two data points to estimate the parameter. Other complex distributions may have multiple parameters for shape, scale and other things, and the minimum number of observations required will be greater than the number of parameters.
Statement III istrue, if the ILD data and scenarios cover the same risk, they are essentially different perspectives on the same risk, and therefore should be combined as weighted averages.
But if they cover completely different risks, the models will need to be added together, not averaged - which is why Statement IV is true.
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Question 9

Which of the following belong in a credit risk report?

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
All the listed variables are relevant to management monitoring the credit risk profile of an institution, therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
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Question 10

CreditRisk+, the actuarial model for calculating portfolio credit risk, is based upon:

Correct Answer: A
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