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  1. Home
  2. Medical Council of Canada Certification
  3. MCCQE Exam
  4. MedicalCouncilofCanada.MCCQE.v2025-10-13.q86 Dumps
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Question 56

A 48-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of regular, heavy menstrual flow. She has a BMI of 54, poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, and obstructive sleep apnea. Laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin: 82 g/L (123-157)
Ferritin: 6 µg/L (11-307)
Endometrial biopsy: Absence of hyperplasia or malignancy
Transvaginal ultrasound:
* Uterus: 12 cm × 8.2 cm × 6 cm
* Intramural fibroids
* Endometrial thickness: 14 mm
* Ovaries: Normal
Which one of the following is the best next step?

Correct Answer: B
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) is the first-line treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding, particularly in women with risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia and contraindications to systemic hormones (e.g., morbid obesity, diabetes, OSA).
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Abnormal Uterine Bleeding" Section:
"The LNG-IUS is highly effective in reducing menstrual bleeding and improving hemoglobin levels. It is particularly recommended in women with obesity, chronic anovulation, or contraindications to estrogen." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):
"Candidates must consider the LNG-IUS as a preferred non-surgical treatment for chronic heavy menstrual bleeding when endometrial pathology has been excluded." Oral contraceptives (C) are not first-line in morbid obesity due to increased thromboembolic risk. Cyclic medroxyprogesterone (D) is less effective than LNG-IUS. Hysterectomy (A) is definitive but should follow failure of conservative therapy.
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Question 57

A 32-year-old man presents to the clinic for assessment of a dog bite sustained 3 days ago while traveling in another country. He recalls having seen the dog eat where he was staying, and the animal did not appear well.
On examination, the patient has 2 distinct deep puncture wounds on his left leg. There is an erythematous border but no exudate. He is unsure of his immunization status. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?

Correct Answer: A
Dog bites from animals of unknown rabies status, especially from endemic regions and in patients with uncertain immunization status, require immediate post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) including both rabies immunoglobulin and vaccine. The decision is urgent given the fatal nature of rabies.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Diseases, "Rabies Exposure":
"Rabies PEP is indicated for bites from animals with unknown vaccination status or those showing abnormal behavior, particularly in endemic regions. PEP includes both vaccine and immunoglobulin." MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 64-1: Rabies and Animal Bites):
"Candidates must recognize indications for rabies post-exposure prophylaxis." Ciprofloxacin (C) is not the antibiotic of choice (amoxicillin-clavulanate is preferred). Hydrogen peroxide (E) can be cytotoxic. Debridement (B) and CK (D) are not immediate priorities here.
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Question 58

A 55-year-old man presents with vague abdominal pain and general weakness. His mother had colon cancer and died at age 60 years. His physical examination findings and complete blood count results are normal.
Which one of the following tests should be ordered first?

Correct Answer: C
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Given his age and a first-degree relative with colon cancer diagnosed before age 60, this patient meets criteria for early colon cancer screening. Colonoscopy is the gold standard for both screening and diagnosis in this context.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Colorectal Cancer Screening":
"Patients with a first-degree relative diagnosed with colorectal cancer before age 60 should begin screening at age 40, or 10 years before the relative's diagnosis. Colonoscopy is the preferred method." MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > Preventive Screening > 63-1):
"Candidates must apply colorectal cancer screening guidelines and select appropriate tests based on risk level." FIT (A) is for average-risk screening. MRI (B) and CT colonography (E) are secondary. Barium enema (D) is outdated.
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Question 59

You are meeting an otherwise healthy 10-year-old boy in your office for the first time. His BMI is at the 80th percentile. He has no symptoms and his physical examination is normal. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Correct Answer: B
Children with a BMI #85th percentile (overweight) and risk factors such as sedentary lifestyle or family history should be screened for cardiovascular risk. A fasting lipid profile is recommended starting at age 9-11 as part of universal screening per guidelines.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics:
"Universal lipid screening is recommended for children aged 9-11 and 17-21. Children who are overweight should undergo targeted screening including fasting lipids." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Preventive Pediatrics):
"Candidates must recognize screening indications for common pediatric risk factors, including dyslipidemia in overweight children." Thyroid and cortisol testing (C, D) are not indicated without symptoms. HbA1c (E) is used in children with BMI >95% or with additional diabetes risk factors.
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Question 60

A 94-year-old woman with severe dementia is referred for vaginal bleeding and a persistent foul odour from the vagina. She lives in a long-term care facility. She has been using a ring pessary for the past 15 years. Her current pessary has not been replaced in 2 years. On examination, there is moderate vaginal atrophy. After removing the pessary, which one of the following is the best next step?

Correct Answer: C
In elderly women with long-term pessary use and signs of vaginal atrophy (thin epithelium, bleeding, odor), local estrogen is the most appropriate initial treatment to restore the vaginal epithelium and reduce inflammation and discharge. Vaginal estrogen improves mucosal integrity and reduces complications like ulceration, infection, and bleeding.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Pelvic Organ Prolapse and Pessary Care" Section:
"Local vaginal estrogen therapy is recommended for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy who are using pessaries. It reduces the risk of erosions, bleeding, and infection, especially when pessary follow-up has been suboptimal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-9: Vaginal Bleeding in Postmenopausal Women):
"Candidates should recognize vaginal atrophy as a common and treatable cause of bleeding in elderly women using pessaries." A biopsy (E) may be needed if symptoms persist after atrophy is treated. Hysteroscopy (A) is invasive and not first-line in this setting. Metronidazole (B) is not indicated without evidence of bacterial vaginosis. Daily saline douching (D) is not recommended and may irritate atrophic mucosa.
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