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  1. Home
  2. Medical Council of Canada Certification
  3. MCCQE Exam
  4. MedicalCouncilofCanada.MCCQE.v2025-10-13.q86 Dumps
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Question 66

A 37-year-old man presents with chronic back, neck, and shoulder pain following a workplace injury 4 years ago. He has a history of alcohol misuse and PTSD related to the incident. Current medications (acetaminophen, naproxen, amitriptyline, gabapentin) provide inadequate pain relief. He requests oxycodone after self-trialing it with temporary benefit. After history and physical assessment, which one of the following is the best next step?

Correct Answer: D
The patient has chronic non-cancer pain with comorbid PTSD and alcohol misuse - high-risk factors for opioid use disorder. Before any opioid prescribing, a comprehensive interdisciplinary approach including mental health and substance use support is essential.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pain Management and Addiction Medicine:
"In chronic pain patients with substance use or mental health comorbidities, refer to addiction/mental health services before considering opioid therapy." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-4: Safe Prescribing):
"Candidates must assess for substance use risk factors and manage chronic pain using a multidisciplinary approach." Imaging (A) is unlikely to alter management. Opioids (B, C) should not be first-line in this context. Cannabis (E) is not first-line and lacks robust evidence in complex chronic pain.
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Question 67

A 30-year-old woman presents to your office with a 6-week history of left lower quadrant pain and dyspareunia. A pelvic ultrasound is normal. Which one of the following is the most important immediate investigation?

Correct Answer: B
This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), especially given the left lower quadrant pain and dyspareunia with a normal pelvic ultrasound. PID is often caused by sexually transmitted infections (STIs), such as Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which may not be evident on imaging.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology:
"Cervical swabs for N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis are essential in the workup of suspected PID or cervicitis, even when imaging is normal. Dyspareunia and chronic pelvic pain with normal imaging should prompt testing for STIs." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics & Gynecology > 82-6: Pelvic Pain):
"Candidates must consider and investigate for infectious causes of pelvic pain, including PID, which requires cervical swab testing as an essential first-line investigation." Laparoscopy (A) is invasive and reserved for uncertain or refractory cases. Hysterosalpingography (C) is used in infertility workups, not acute pain. Endometrial biopsy (D) and MRI (E) are not first-line.
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Question 68

A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of a limp. On examination, he looks well, has a temperature of 38 °C and is able to weight-bear. His hip examination reveals mild decreased range of motion. Radiographs of his hip and pelvis show no abnormality. His C-reactive protein level is 8 mg
/L (< 6). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Transient synovitis is the most common cause of hip pain and limp in children aged 3-10 years. It is often preceded by a viral infection. Patients appear well, can often bear weight, and have only mild to moderate elevation in inflammatory markers. Radiographs are normal.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Limping Child":
"Transient synovitis is benign and self-limiting. Presentation includes mild limp, low-grade fever, normal or slightly elevated CRP/ESR, and ability to bear weight." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Musculoskeletal Disorders):
"Candidates must distinguish between transient synovitis and more serious causes of limping, such as septic arthritis." Septic arthritis (A) usually causes inability to bear weight and more significant fever and CRP elevation.
Osteomyelitis (B) typically presents with localized tenderness and systemic signs. Bursitis (D) is rare in young children. JIA (E) is chronic.
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Question 69

A 60-year-old man presents because of a 6-month history of involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements.
His medical history is significant for schizophrenia, which has been very stable with haloperidol for the past
20 years. When educating the patient about these particular symptoms, which one of the following statements is accurate?

Correct Answer: B
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient has tardive dyskinesia, a late-onset, often irreversible movement disorder caused by chronic dopamine receptor blockade (e.g., haloperidol). It is especially common in older adults and may not resolve after stopping the drug.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Extrapyramidal Symptoms":
"Tardive dyskinesia is often irreversible and typically occurs after prolonged antipsychotic use. Elderly patients are at greater risk." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Side Effects of Psychotropics):
"Candidates must recognize tardive dyskinesia and understand that it can persist or worsen even after discontinuation of antipsychotics." Anticholinergics may worsen it (D). The condition does not reliably improve with age (C). It does not affect a majority of patients (A).
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Question 70

A 40-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and fever (38.5°C). She has a history of hypothyroidism managed with levothyroxine. Key findings include:
Blood pressure
114/78 mm Hg
Heart rate
85/min
Temperature
38.5°C
Hemoglobin
90 g/L123-157 g/L
Platelet count
25 × 10#/L130-400 × 10#/L
Peripheral blood film
Schistocytes present
Creatinine
200 #mol/L50-90 #mol/L

Correct Answer: E
This patient presents with fever, confusion, anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, and renal impairment - fulfilling the classic pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is a hematologic emergency requiring plasma exchange.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Hematology, "Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia" Section:
"TTP is a medical emergency. Features include MAHA, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurologic symptoms, and fever. Schistocytes on blood film are diagnostic." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-7: Hematologic Disorders):
"Candidates must urgently recognize TTP and initiate emergent plasma exchange therapy." AML (B) does not present with schistocytes. HIV (C) can cause thrombocytopenia but not MAHA. ITP (D) causes isolated thrombocytopenia without anemia or schistocytes.
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