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  1. Home
  2. Medical Council of Canada Certification
  3. MCCQE Exam
  4. MedicalCouncilofCanada.MCCQE.v2025-10-13.q86 Dumps
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Question 71

A 58-year-old woman presents to your office with heavy vaginal bleeding. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Some active bleeding is visible on speculum examination. Ultrasound reveals an endometrial thickness of 12 mm. Endometrial biopsy shows complex hyperplasia with atypia. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Correct Answer: E
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Complex endometrial hyperplasia with atypia carries a high risk of progression to or concurrent endometrial carcinoma. Definitive management in postmenopausal women is total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo- oophorectomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Abnormal Uterine Bleeding:
"Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia in postmenopausal women is best managed surgically due to the risk of malignancy." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Postmenopausal Bleeding:
"Candidates should identify endometrial hyperplasia with atypia as an indication for hysterectomy in appropriate patients." Ablation (A) is contraindicated. Progesterone (B) is used for non-atypical hyperplasia. D&C (C) and hysteroscopy (D) are diagnostic but not definitive.
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Question 72

A 21-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 6-month history of unusual behavior. He believes that he has been specially chosen to found a new religion. He says he has seen visions of angels in his bedroom. He appears disheveled and malodorous. On further inspection, you note that he drinks 2 liters daily.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

Correct Answer: B
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The patient presents with classic symptoms of schizophrenia: delusions, hallucinations, social withdrawal, and disorganized appearance. The first-line treatment is antipsychotic medication-risperidone is a well-tolerated option among second-generation antipsychotics.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Schizophrenia":
"Schizophrenia is treated with second-generation antipsychotics such as risperidone. These reduce positive symptoms like delusions and hallucinations." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-3: Psychotic Disorders):
"Candidates must recognize and manage schizophrenia with antipsychotics and distinguish from other mood or personality disorders." CBT (E) is supportive but not first-line. ECT (A) is used for severe depression or catatonia. Valproic acid (C) and carbamazepine (D) are mood stabilizers, not first-line for schizophrenia.
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Question 73

A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 0, presents to your clinic. Her pregnancy is at 22 weeks' gestation. Her blood pressure is 158/96 mm Hg. Which one of the following antihypertensive medications is contraindicated for this patient?

Correct Answer: A
Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risks of fetal renal dysgenesis, oligohydramnios, and fetal death, especially in the second and third trimesters.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy:
"ACE inhibitors and ARBs are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic potential and adverse fetal effects." MCCQE1 Objectives - Obstetrics > Hypertension in Pregnancy:
"Candidates must identify safe antihypertensives during pregnancy and contraindicated medications such as ACE inhibitors and ARBs." Methyldopa, labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine are considered safe and are commonly used in pregnancy.
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Question 74

A 72-year-old man reports that his wife says he has hearing trouble. Examination reveals that air conduction on the right side is less than on the left side and greater than bone conduction bilaterally. He hears a tuning fork placed on the top of his head better with his left ear. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Correct Answer: B
The patient demonstrates signs of asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL). In Weber test, sound localizes to the better ear in SNHL. Air conduction > bone conduction on Rinne test bilaterally supports SNHL. Audiometry is the best next diagnostic step to quantify and characterize the hearing loss.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ENT, "Hearing Loss":
"Audiometry is the first-line investigation to distinguish conductive from sensorineural hearing loss and to assess severity and frequency involvement." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > ENT > 20-1):
"Candidates must know the approach to hearing loss and interpret Weber and Rinne tests to guide investigations such as audiometry." Imaging (A, C) is reserved for red flags such as unilateral persistent SNHL, which may later prompt MRI to rule out acoustic neuroma. Wax removal (D) is for conductive loss. Hearing aids (E) are management, not diagnostic, and come after audiologic evaluation.
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Question 75

A 3.5-year-old girl has developed a stutter in the last 3 months. She repeats whole words several times before finishing a sentence. Her paternal uncle had a severe stuttering issue as a child. She has reached the developmental milestones for her age. Her new sibling was born 4 months ago. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Correct Answer: E
This presentation describesnormal developmental dysfluency, which typically occurs between ages 2-5 and often worsens duringtimes of stress or change, such as a new sibling. It is characterized byword repetition and does not require intervention unless it persists >6 months, worsens, or causes distress.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Developmental and Behavioral Pediatrics" Section:
"Developmental stuttering is common between 2-5 years and often resolves without intervention.
Reassurance is appropriate unless there are signs of persistent or severe stuttering, secondary behaviors, or parental concern." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Development and Behavior):
"Candidates must recognize typical patterns of developmental speech dysfluency and differentiate them from pathological speech disorders. Observation and reassurance are often the appropriate initial step." Because the child is otherwise developing normally and the onset coincides with a known psychosocial stressor,reassuranceis the most appropriate step. Formal speech or behavioral therapy is not indicated at this time.
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