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  2. PRMIA Certification
  3. 8010 Exam
  4. PRMIA.8010.v2022-03-04.q88 Dumps
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Question 76

If F be the face value of a firm's debt, V the value of its assets and E the market value of equity, then according to the option pricing approach a default on debt occurs when:

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
According to the option pricing approach developed by Merton, the shareholders of a firm have a put on the assets of the firm where the strike price is equal to the face value of the firm's debt. This is just a more complicated way of saying that the debt holders are entitled to all the assets of the firm if these assets are insufficient to pay off the debts, and because of limited liability of the shareholders of a corporation this part payment will fully extinguish thedebt.
A firm will default on its debt if the value of the assets falls below the face value of the debt. Therefore Choice
'a' is the correct answer. All other choices are incorrect.
(There are two ways to consider this sort of optionality, and I have mentioned only one for this question:
1. The equity holders can sell the assets of the firm to the debt holders at a price equal to the face value of the debt, ie a put. (ie they can extinguish their liability to the debt holders in full by handing them the assets of the firm, effectively selling them the assets at the value of the debt)
2. The equity holders have a long position in a call option where they can keep the assets of the firm by paying a price equal to the face value of the debt (ie, they can pay off the debt holders and keep the assets) For this question, perspective 1 applies but you should be aware of the second one too as a question may reference that view point.)
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Question 77

Which of the following statements are true:
I. A high score according to Altman's Z-Score methodology indicates a lower default risk II. A high score according to theProbit or Logit models indicates a higher default risk III. A high score according to Altman's Z-Score methodology indicates a higher default risk IV. A high score according to the Probit or Logit models indicates a lower default risk

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
A high score under the probit and logit models indicates a higher default risk, while under Altman's methodology it indicates a lower default risk. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
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Question 78

Which of the following is not one of the 'three pillars' specified in the Basel accord:

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The three pillars are minimum capital requirements, supervisory review and market discipline. National regulation is not a pillar described under the accord. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
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Question 79

Which of the following statements is true:
I. Confidence levels for economic capital calculations are driven by desired credit ratings II. Loss distributions for operational risk are affected more by theseverity distribution than the frequency distribution III. The Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA) referred to in the Basel II standard is a type of a Loss Distribution Approach (LDA) IV. The loss distribution for operational risk under the LDA (Loss Distribution Approach) is estimated by separately estimating the frequency and severity distributions.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Statement I is correct. Economic capital is the capital available to absorbunexpected losses, and credit ratings are also based upon a certain probability of default. Economic capital is often calculated at a level equal to the confidence required for the desired credit rating. For example, if the probability of default for a AArating is
0.02%, then economic capital maintained at a 99.98% would allow for such a rating. Economic capital set at a
99.8% level can be thought of as the level of losses that would not be exceeded with a 99.8% probability.
Loss distributions are the product of the severity and frequency distributions, each of which are estimated separately. The total loss distribution is affected far more by the severity distribution than by the frequency distribution, therefore statement II is correct.
The Loss Distribution Approach (LDA) is one of the ways in which the requirements of the AMA can be satisfied, and not the other way round. Therefore statement III is incorrect.
Statement IV is correct as the total loss distribution is estimated using separate estimatesof loss frequency and distributions.
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Question 80

Which of the following objectives are targeted by rating agencies when assigning ratings:
I. Ratings accuracy
II. Ratings stability
III. High accuracy ratio (AR)
IV. Ranked ratings

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Rating agencies target both accuracy and stability when they assign ratings. These two objectives can sometimes conflict, so a balance needs to be struck between the two. Rating agencies do not target anyparticular 'accuracy ratio' or rankings. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
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