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  3. 8010 Exam
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Question 81

The VaR of a portfolio at the 99% confidence level is $250,000 when mean return is assumed to be zero. If the assumption of zero returns is changed to an assumption of returns of $10,000, what is the revised VaR?

Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The exact formula for VaR is = -(Z + ), where Z is the z-multiple for the desired confidence level, and is the mean return. Now Z is always a negative number, or at least will certainly be provided the desired confidence level is greater than 50%, and is often assumed to be zero because generally for the short time periods for which market risk VaR is calculated, its value is very close to zero.
Therefore in practice the formula for VaR just becomes -Z, andsince Z is always negative, we normally just multiply the Z factor without the negative sign with the standard deviation to get the VaR.
For this question, there are two ways to get the answer. If we use the formula, we know that -Z= 250,000 (as
=0), and therefore -Z - = 250,000 - 10,000 = $240,000.
The other, easier way to think about this is that if the mean changes, then the distribution's shape stays exactly the same, and the entire distribution shifts to the right by $10,000 as the mean moves upby $10,000. Therefore the VaR cutoff, which was previously at -250,000 on the graph also moves up by 10k to -240,000, and therefore $240,000 is the correct answer.
The other choices are intended to confuse by multiplying the z-factor for the 99% confidence level with
10,000 etc.
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Question 82

When compared to a low severity high frequency risk, the operational risk capital requirement for a medium severity medium frequency risk is likely to be:

Correct Answer: C
Explanation
High frequency and low severity risks, for example the risks of fraud losses for a credit card issuer, may have high expected losses, but low unexpected losses. In other words, we can generally expect these losses tostay within a small expected and known range. The capital requirement will be the worst case losses at a given confidence level less expected losses, and in such cases this can be expected to be low.
On the other hand, medium severity medium frequency risks, such as the risks of unexpected legal claims,
'fat-finger' trading errors, will have low expected losses but a high level of unexpected losses. Thus the capital requirement for such risks will be high.
It is also worthwhile mentioning high severity andlow frequency risks - for example a rogue trader circumventing all controls and bringing the bank down, or a terrorist strike or natural disaster creating other losses - will probably have zero expected losses & high unexpected losses but only at very highlevels of confidence. In other words, operational risk capital is unlikely to provide for such events and these would lie in the part of the tail that is not covered by most levels of confidence when calculating operational risk capital.
Note that risk capital is required for only unexpected losses as expected losses are to be borne by P&L reserves. Therefore the operational risk capital requirements for a low severity high frequency risk is likely to be low when compared to other risks that are lower frequency but higher severity.
Thus Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
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Question 83

Under the standardized approach to determining operational risk capital, operations risk capital is equal to:

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Choice 'd' is the correct answer, as laid down in the Basel II document. The other choices are incorrect.
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Question 84

If a borrower has a default probability of 12% over one year, what is the probability of default over a month?

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Let theprobability of default over a month be p. Therefore the probability of survival at the end of 12 months would be (1 - p)^12. Since the one year probability of default is 12%, we know that the probability of survival is 88%. Putting (1 - p)^12 = 88% and solving for p, we get p = 1.06%. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
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Question 85

Which of the following statements is true in respect of a non financial manufacturing firm?
I. Market risk is not relevant to the manufacturing firm as it does not take proprietary positions II. The firm faces market risks as an externality which it must bear and has no control over III. Market risks can make a comparative assessment of profitability over time difficult IV. Market risks for a manufacturing firm are not directionally biased and do not increase the overall risk of the firm as they net to zero over a long term time horizon

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
A non-financial firm such as a manufacturing company faces market risks similar to those faced by financial firms, except perhaps for not being exposed to risks from the equity markets. Non financial firms commonly face interest rate risks in respect of their debts, commodity price risks in respect of their inputs and products, and foreign currency risks in respect of their overseas operations. It is therefore not correct to say that the manufacturing firm does not face market risk because it does not take proprietary positions. While decisions on positions may not be actively taken, positions in foreign exchange (eg, through overseas debtors owing foreign currency, or liabilities in foreign currencies to overseas suppliers), commodities (through exposure to the need for raw material and inventory of finished goods) and interest rates (through debt financed, whether at fixed or floating rates) exist and create market risk much in the same way as they would for a proprietary position. Therefore statement I is incorrect.
While the firm faces market risks as an externality (as do financial firms for that matter, though often they seek such exposure to profit from their view on which way the externality will express itself), it is incorrect to say that these risks must be borne. They can be measured and hedged. Therefore statement II is incorrect.
The results of a manufacturing firm will include gains and losses arising from exposure to market risk, and will cloud the true profitability of the business. A firm with significant unhedged overseas sales may show vastly different results across time periods due to the FX gains and losses, making comparative assessment of profitability difficult. Therefore statement III is correct.
Market risks for a manufacturing firm may be directionally biased in terms of exposure, ie there may be a consistent 'long' position in a particular commodity that the firm produces, and a consistent 'short' position in the commodities consumed. In the same way, directional biases may exist in FX or interest rate exposures too.
Regardless of the bias, the existence of market risk exposures increase the volatility of the income stream and make the firm more risky, even though the long term expected returns from such exposures is zero (ie, returns may be zero but standard deviation is not). Therefore statement IV is not correct as market risks form non financialfirms do increase the overall risk of the firm.
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