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  1. Home
  2. Medical Council of Canada Certification
  3. MCCQE Exam
  4. MedicalCouncilofCanada.MCCQE.v2025-10-13.q86 Dumps
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Question 81

A 19-year-old woman returns to your clinic to discuss her recent laboratory tests. She initially presented with dysuria, dyspareunia, and abnormal uterine bleeding. Her vulvovaginal examination was normal. Her last sexual encounter was 3 weeks prior to the onset of her symptoms. Which one of the following pathogens is most likely to explain this clinical presentation?

Correct Answer: E
Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of cervicitis in young sexually active women and frequently presents with dysuria, dyspareunia, intermenstrual bleeding, and a normal vulvovaginal exam. It may be asymptomatic or have subtle signs and often affects the endocervix.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Sexually Transmitted Infections" Section:
"Chlamydia is the most common bacterial STI. Symptoms may include intermenstrual bleeding, postcoital bleeding, dyspareunia, mucopurulent cervical discharge, and dysuria. The vulva and vagina may appear normal." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):
"Candidates should evaluate STI-related cervicitis as a common cause of postcoital and intermenstrual bleeding in young women." Other options:
* A. Actinomyces israelii is associated with IUD use, not relevant here.
* B. Herpes simplex virus usually presents with painful ulcerations, not abnormal bleeding.
* C. Treponema pallidum (syphilis) causes painless ulcers or systemic symptoms in later stages.
* D. HPV causes warts or asymptomatic cervical dysplasia, not acute symptoms.
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Question 82

A 55-year-old man with alcohol use disorder presents with a 2-day history of confusion. Onexamination, you note a sixth nerve palsy and a horizontal nystagmus. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C
Wernicke encephalopathy is a medical emergency caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency, most often seen in chronic alcohol use. The classic triad is:
* Confusion
* Oculomotor dysfunction (e.g., nystagmus, cranial nerve palsies)
* Ataxia
Toronto Notes 2023 - Neurology and Psychiatry, "Wernicke Encephalopathy" Section:
"Wernicke encephalopathy is diagnosed clinically. Symptoms include ophthalmoplegia (e.g., CN VI palsy), horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion. Immediate parenteral thiamine is indicated before glucose administration." MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 75-1: Neurologic Emergencies):
"Candidates must recognize Wernicke encephalopathy in at-risk individuals and initiate urgent thiamine replacement." Other choices like cerebellar degeneration (A) and hepatic encephalopathy (D) are more chronic and lack the characteristic eye findings. Subdural hematoma (B) and hemorrhage (E) may mimic confusion but are less likely with these neurologic signs and history.
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Question 83

An 18-year-old woman comes to the office because of fatigue. She tells you she is struggling in her first year of university. She mentions that she spends much of her time rewriting her notes and filing and organizing her study materials. She is doing all the work in her group assignments because she feels others cannot do the work to a high enough standard. She has abandoned all enjoyable activities and seems to be constantly working and worrying about her grades. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D
This patient exhibits perfectionism, preoccupation with order and control, and reluctance to delegate - classic features of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). Unlike OCD, there are no intrusive thoughts or compulsions; rather, behaviors are ego-syntonic.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Personality Disorders:
"OCPD is marked by perfectionism, rigidity, and preoccupation with productivity. It differs from OCD in lacking obsessions or compulsions." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Personality Disorders:
"Candidates must distinguish OCPD by traits of excessive perfectionism, control, and inflexibility, particularly when these interfere with functioning." Major depression (A) is marked by pervasive low mood, which is not reported. OCD (B) involves distressing obsessions and compulsions. GAD (C) is more generalized worry without the perfectionism and rigidity.
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Question 84

A 30-year-old man (assigned female at birth) presents to your clinic for a periodic health examination. He declines a gynecologic examination because such examinations lead to intense emotional distress for him. He also believes that he does not require a Papanicolaou (Pap) test because he is not in a sexual relationship with a man. After acknowledging the patient's distress and providing education regarding the need for Pap screening, which one of the following would be the best next step?

Correct Answer: B
It is essential to balance medical guidelines with trauma-informed, patient-centered care. This includes offering future discussion while respecting boundaries. Acknowledging distress and offering to explore more in the future (B) preserves trust and autonomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM and LGBTQ2S+ Health Section:
"For transgender individuals, screening decisions should be personalized. Trauma-informed care includes validating distress and deferring invasive exams when not urgent." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-2: Cultural Safety):
"Candidates must prioritize patient-centered communication and consent, particularly when distress or marginalization may influence healthcare interactions." Option A is coercive. Option C is documentation only and lacks engagement or exploration.
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Question 85

A 56-year-old man is admitted to hospital with pyelonephritis and started on intravenous antibiotics. On day 2 of his hospitalization, he continues to report right flank pain, but he is able to walk. His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 38.5°C
Blood pressure: 90/60 mm Hg
Heart rate: 105/min
The patient is mentating well but is concerned about his dog that is home alone due to his unexpected hospitalization. He requests to be released from hospital as he needs to make arrangements for his dog. Which one of the following is the best next step?

Correct Answer: D
The patient is alert and capable of making his own decisions. The most ethical and respectful approach is to ensure he understands the risks and accept his choice. Holding his bed maintains continuity of care. Forcing him to stay (C) or discharging him AMA (A) is inappropriate if he intends to return.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, Consent and Autonomy:
"Capable patients have the right to refuse or leave treatment. Physicians must ensure informed decision- making and maintain therapeutic rapport." MCCQE1 Objectives - ELOM > Capacity and Patient Autonomy:
"Candidates must respect a capable patient's right to leave care after informed discussion of risks and alternatives." Offering to enter his apartment (E) is inappropriate and unethical. Oral antibiotics (B) may not be clinically appropriate given hypotension.
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